State Judges Should Ground Their Rulings in Their State's Constitution

It always feels a bit weird to me when a state Supreme Court has held that some law or practice of that state is unconstitutional, and then the U.S. Supreme Court reverses. Like, I dunno. If a state legislature refrained from passing a law because it thought the law violated the federal Constitution, but the federal courts disagreed with this conclusion, they wouldn't be able to force the state into passing the law. Why, from the federal government's perspective, should it matter which officials within the state government decide that the state is not going to have a certain law, because they erroneously believe it to be unconstitutional? It feels like forcing the state to do something it doesn't want to do, which is just weird. Of course, I get that this logic doesn't really hold, among other things because someone will have appealed the case to the Supreme Court, either the state government itself (in which case it's not quite right to say that, as far as the feds are concerned, the state doesn't want to enforce the law) or a private party whose success in some lawsuit depends upon that state law's being valid. That person is entitled to their judgment unless the federal Constitution says otherwise. So, I get it. The federal courts are allowed to reverse state court decisions interpreting the federal Constitution, even when that means vacating a judgment voiding a law of their own state.

But... why would a state court ever allow one of its judgments to suffer this fate? Because the thing is, just as state courts have no authority to interpret the federal Constitution contrary to how the federal courts interpret it, so too do the federal courts have no authority to interpret state constitutions contrary to how the state courts have interpreted them. And I believe that almost every state constitution has general language in it similar to the Due Process and Equal Protection Clauses of the Fourteenth Amendment, which are responsible for the overwhelming majority of the unconstitutionality of state laws. (Technically much of that burden should fall on the Privileges or Immunities Clause, but as a doctrinal matter it doesn't so that's beside the point for this purpose.) So, therefore, if I were a state supreme court and I were drafting an opinion striking down some state law because I thought it contrary to the federal Constitution, I know what I'd do, every single time: I would include a bit of language saying that, oh yeah, the analogous language in my state's own constitution commands the same result. Because, you see, the federal courts can't touch that holding. So even if they think I'm wrong about the federal constitutional issues, they can't actually reverse my judgment and reinstate the law. Hell, if I include one paragraph making clear that I've read my holding into the state constitution as well, the government (or whoever) can't even appeal to the federal courts, because the case would be moot! It would totally immunize my judgments (of this sort) against federal reversal.

I'm reminded of this by seeing a dissenting judge in a Georgia case about racially discriminatory peremptory strikes in the selection of juries argue for a similar tactic. Except there, the federal law had already been established, so the court would just have been saying, "well, yes, the federal Constitution doesn't require this, the Supreme Court has said so and we're bound by that, but we think the Georgia Constitution does." Quite rightly, he admits that Supreme Court doctrine limiting the application of the rule against such discriminatory strikes is binding on the Georgia court, but as he points out, there is absolutely nothing wrong with interpreting the state's own constitutional guarantees to go beyond the federally-mandated "floor." Just so: when the federal courts decide that a certain state practice is unconstitutional, that's the end of things, but when they decide a practice is constitutional, state courts are still allowed to have their own say, and they may do so in ways that no federal court can touch. Even of nothing more motivates the state judges than a belief that the federal courts are wrong, and should be interpreting the federal Constitution differently! State judges have essentially plenary power to effectively nullify any federal constitutional decision upholding state practice. And that's good--this isn't like ordinary nullification, where a state tries to nullify a federal law or do something that the federal courts say does violate the federal Constitution, because there's nothing in federal law requiring the states to do things the Supreme Court says aren't unconstitutional.

So why don't we see state courts using this tactic more often?